In the last post, I gave a simple but tedious proof of the gambler’s ruin problem by first principles. Here is a shorter proof, using martingales. I split the proof of fair games and biased game
Fair Game
First consider the case when the probability of winning is 1/2. Let denote the gambler’s fortune at time
. Then
is a martingale because
Let denote the stopping time when the process stops. Then, by optimal stopping theorem, we have
Thus,
and hence
To find the expected number of plays, we use an alternate representation of the problem. For that matter, let denote the winnings of the gambler at time
. Then
Since ‘s are i.i.d., Wald’s equation can be used to find thestopping time. As
, we use the second Wald’s equation
Observe that . Then,
Biased Game
Now suppose that the probability of winning . The tricky part in this case is to construct the martingale. Let
and
. Then
is a martingale. In particular
Let $\tau$ be the stopping time when the game stops. Then, by optional stopping theorem
So
which simplifies to
The expected stopping time can be computed using Wald’s first equation. Define as before. Then,
Note that
Thus,
Ah. Much cleaner proof than last time. Now, I can go back to work.
Are there are any solutions on a generalized gambler’s ruin problem where there are finite number of win or loss outcomes? Thank you!